Political Science MCQ Exam « MCQ Objective Sample Model Tests for INDIA

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Political Science MCQ Exam

Political Science MCQ Exam
Political Science MCQ Question Bank India Jobs Exams
Sample paper MCQ model test objective questions political Science .
Multiple-Choice Questions Political Science

1. What was the real objective
behind the ’Partition of Bengal’
(A) Create a division among the
ranks of Indian Nanonalists
(B) Stop the tide of Nationalism
in Bengal
(C) Build up separate Administrative units for better efficiency
of administration
(D) Appease the large majority
of Muslims

ANSWER.C

2. The place where Navy openly
revolted in 1946 against British
rule in India is—
(A) Bombay (Mumbai)
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Cochin

ANSWER.A

3. Given below are two statements,
one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). In the context of
these statements, select the
correct answer from the codes
mentioned bel0w—
Assertion (A) The Indian
Independence Act, 1947 ended
the British rule in India.
Reason (R) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 laid down a
new constitution for India pro•
viding for every detail.

Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

ANSWER.C

4. Who among the following is
called, “The Prophet of Indian
Nationalism and Father of
modern India/’ ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Swami Vivekanand
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

ANSWER.A

5. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President
of India are correct ?
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below—
1. He is the ex-officio chairman
of the Rajya Sabha.
2. He must be member of the
Rajya Sabha for his election
as Vice-President.
3. He is elected by the members
of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative
Assemblies.
4, If the President resigns or
dies, the Vice President officiates as President for not
more than six months.
Codes
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 3 and 4

ANSWER.A

6. Who of the following linked the
Directive Principles with a
cheque payable at the convenience of the Bank
(A) A. K. Aiyar
(B) H. Kunzru
(C) H. V, Kamath
(D) K. T. Shah

ANSWER.D

7. Who among the following was
elected President of India with
second preference votes ?
(A) Gyani Zail Singh
(B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) V.V.Giri

ANSWER.D

8. Which of the following Articles
of Indian Constitution put limitation on Legislative powers of
Parliament and State Legislatures ?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 245
(C) Article 246
(D) All of the above

ANSWER.D

9. Which prominent leader had
opposed the Champaran Satyagrah of 1917 because it was led
by Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) N. G. Ranga
(B) T. K. Madhavan
(C) Champak Raman Pillai
(D) E. M. S.Narnboodi1ipad

ANSWER.A

10. Who among the following has
the right to take part in the
proceedings of both the Houses
of the Parliament without being
a member of the Parliament
(A) Solicitor-General of India
(B) Attorney-General of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
(D) Chief justice of India

ANSWER.B

11. The guardianship of Indian
Constitution is vested in-
(A) The President
(B) The Cabinet
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Supreme Court

ANSWER.D

12. “India that is Bharat) shall be a
Union of States.” The word
’Union’ is derived from the
Constitution of-
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Switzerland
(C) Canada
(D) Australia

ANSWER.A

13 President of India can be
removed from his office by
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Com-
missioner

ANSWER.B

14. A Federal Court was established
in India under the Act of4
(A) 1892 (B) 1909
(C) 1919 (D) 1935

ANSWER.D

15. The Article of the Indian Constitution which empowers the
Parliament to regulate the right
of citizenship is-

(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11

ANSWER.D

16. which Article of the Indian
Constitution provides for Ad-hoc
Judges in the Supreme Court
(A) 124 (B) 125
(C) 126 (D) 127

ANSWER.D

17. Which of the following decides
the disputes regarding the election of the President of India ?
(A) The Rajya Sabha
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Commissioner

ANSWER.C

18. Which of the following words
were added to the Preamble of
the Indian Constitution by the
42nd Amendment
(A) Republic, Sovereign
(B) Secular, Democratic
(C) Secular, Socialist
(D) Democratic, Sovereign

ANSWER.C

19. While a resolution for the
removal of the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha is under consideration-
1. The Speaker shall have right
to speak.
2. He shall not preside.
3. He shall be entitled to vote
only in the first instance.
4. He shall not be present in the
House.
Select your answer from the
codes-
(A) 2 and 4 are correct
(B) 1, 2, 3 are correct
(C) Only 1 is correct
(D) 2 and 3 are correct

ANSWER.B

20. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian
Constitution is related with-
(A) Anti-Defection Provisions
(B) Indian Languages
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Union List, State List and
Concurrent List

ANSWER.C

21. In Indian Federation the division
of power in three lists has been
derived from-
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Government of India Act,
1935

ANSWER.C

22. Given below are two statements,
one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). ln the context of
these statements, select die
correct answer from the codes
mentioned below-
Assertion (A) z The Prime
Minister in the Indian Political
system is very powerful.
Reason (R) : There is Parliamentary system of Government
In India.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

ANSWER.A

23. Match List—I with List-H and
select the correct answer from
the codes given below-
List-I
(a) Poona Pact
(b) August Proposal
(c) Wardha Proposal
(d) Wavell Plan
List-II
1. 8 August 1940
2. 14 July 1942
3. 4 June 1945
4. 26 September 1932
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2

ANSWER.B

24. Which Amendment of the Indian
Constitution gave constitutional
status to Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) 71st (B) 72nd
(C) 73rd (D) 74th

ANSWER.C

25. Who among the following Cong-
ress members rejected the
Mountbatten Plan ‘?
(A) J. B. Kripalani
(B) G. B. Pant
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sardar Patel

ANSWER.C

26, In Which part of the Indian
Constitution relations between
the Union and the States have
been mentioned ?
(A) Part X (B) Part XI
(C) Part XIV (D) Part XV

ANSWER.B

27. What is true about the Governor
of a State ?
(A) He has no discretionary
power
(B) Validity of his discretion can
be questioned
(C) For his discretionary functions he is not responsible to the
President
(D) High Court may inquire into
the advice tendered by Ministers
to the Governor

ANSWER.C

28. Which of the following States
was the first to establish the
Panchayat Raj Institutions?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) U. P

ANSWER.A

29 The Constitutional Government
means-
(A) Government according to
the terms of the Constitution
(B) Government based on the
rule of the law
(C) A Democratic Government
(D) All these

ANSWER.D

30. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution can the Parliament
legislate on any subject in the
State list ?
(A) Article 229
(B) Article 230
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249

ANSWER.D

31. A constitutional reason to make
the centre strong in India is—
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Centralised Planning
(C) Zonal Councils
(D) Union List

ANSWER.D

32. One common point of agreement
between Indian and U.S. Federalism is that-
(A) Residuary powers belong to
the Centre
(B) Residuary powers belong to
the States
(C) There is provision for con-
current jurisdiction in certain
matters
(D) The Supreme Court is the
arbiter in the event of conflict
between the Centre and me States

ANSWER.D

33. Which one of the following
qualifications is common to
Presidential candidates in both
India and the U. S. A. ?
(A) Citizenship
(B) Minimum age
(C) Residential requirement
(D) Eligibility to become member of the popular house of the
legislature

ANSWER.B

34. Proclamation of Emergency
under Article 352 of the Constitution of India may be made by the
President–
(A) According to his own judgment
(B) On the request of the Lok Sabha
(C) On the recommendation of
the Prime Minister
(D) On the written advice of the
Council of Ministers

ANSWER.D

35. The system of Judicial review is
found in—
(A) Only in India
(B) Only in Britain
(C) Only in U.S.A.
(D) In both India and U,S.A.

ANSWER.D

36. Who has referred Indian Federation as ’Paramount Federation’
(A) C. H. Alexandrowicz
(B) M. P. Sharma
(C) K. Santhauam
(D) A. C. Banerjee

ANSWER.C

37. Dadabhai Naoroji has described
his theory of ’Drain of Wealth’ in
the book-
(A) Poverty and un British rule
in India
(B) Exploitative nature of British
Rule in India
(C) British Rule and its con-
sequences
(D) Nature of British Colonial
Rule

ANSWER.A

38. Which one of the following statements is not correct
(A) State is abstract but the
government is concrete
(B) Society is wider than the
State
(C) Government is the agent of
the State
(D) Membership of the State is
optional

ANSWER.D

39. “lt is true that there is no State
where there is no over-ruling
force. But die exercise of force
does not make a State otherwise
a pirate ship or the mutinous
army would be a State. Who has
made this statement
(A) Fredrick Angels
(B) Robert Maclver
(C) H. I. Laski
(D) Max Weber

ANSWER.D

40. Which of the following thinkers
does not regard territory as an
essential element of the State
(A) Plato
(B) Locke
(C) Maotse Tung
(D) Seeley

ANSWER.D

41. Who among the following opines
that ’pub1ic service’ and not
sovereignty is the essential
characteristic of the State
(A) Otto Von Gierke
(B) Leon Duguit
(C) Ernest Barker
(D) A. D. Lindsay

ANSWER.B

42. “The State is the product and
manifestation of the irreconcilability of class antagonism/’
Who holds the above view
(A) Marx (B) Lenin
(C) Bakunin (D) Stalin

ANSWER.A

43. The word ’Polis’ relates to—•
(A) Police
(B) Civil Administration
(C) City State
(D) Public opinion

ANSWER.C

44. “Liberty is increased when
sovereignty is put into the right
hands” Who has made this
statement
(A) Friedman
(B) Hayek
(C) I. Berlin
(D) L. Strauss

ANSWER.C

45. Who among the following is,
associated with ’Civic—Sovereignty’ Theory

(A) John Devey
(B) John Strachy
(C) R. H. Tawney
(D) S, G. Hobson

ANSWER.C

46. Which one of the following
ideologies considers political
party as ’a vanguard of the social
class’ ?
(A) Idealism
(B) individualism
(C) Fabianism
(D) Marxism

ANSWER.D

47, Given below are two statements,
one is labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). In the context of
these statements, select die
correct answer from the codes
mentioned below-
Assertion (A) : The concept of
sovereignty could not be developed during Middle Ages,
Reason (R) : The social system
during the Middle Ages was
decentralized and permeated by
Christianity.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

ANSWER.A

48. Who among the following makes
a distinction between society and
state ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Maclver
(C) Bryce
(D) Charles Merriam

ANSWER.B

49. Which pair is not correctly?
matched ?
(A) George Sorel – Syndicalism
(B) Hegel – Individualisrn
(C) G.D.H. Cole——Guild socialism
(D) Laski —-Pluralism

ANSWER.B

50, Who among the following was
the first to propound the Pluralistic Theory of Sovereignty ?
(A) H.J. Laski
(B) Jean Bodin
(C) Maclver
(D) Otto Von Gierke

ANSWER.D

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