Solved objective type questions bank on Law « MCQ Objective Sample Model Tests for INDIA

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Solved objective type questions bank on Law

Solved objective type questions bank on Law
Very useful for exams containing MCQ Law Questions
Solved Free Online Law paper
Indian Laws Objective test



1. Who administers oath to the
Governor of a State ?

(A) President of India
(B) Chief justice of the State
High Court
(C) Advocate General of the
(D) None of the Above


2. A person whose fundamental
rights are violated can move the
High Court under-

(A) Article 20 (B) Article 226
(C) Article 32 (D) Article 22


3. Which of the following protects
personal freedom ?

(A) Quo•warrant0
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Certiorari


4. Preamble of the Constitution
declares India as

(A) A Socialist Democratic
(B) A Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Democratic
(D) A None of the above


5. Who among the following was
the Chairman of the Constitution
Drafting Committee ?

(A) Dr. B. R, Ambedkar
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel


Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

6. Power granted to a Court under
Section 151 of the Code of Civil
Procedure is known as-

(A) Inherent power
(B) Appellate power
(C) Revisional power
(D) Reviewing power


7. An application for amendment of
pleadings is filed under-

(A) Order 6 Rule 17
(B) Order 6 Rule 5
(C) Order 38 Rule 5
(D) Order 21 Rule 1


8. Provisions with regard to res
judicata are provided in Section
……… ot the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

(A) Section9
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 100
(D) Section 11


9. A person instituting. a suit in
’f0rm of a pauper’ is known as-

(A) Intelligent person
(B) Juristic person
(C) First person
(D) Indigent person


10. A suit shall be instituted in a
Court within the local limits of
whose jurisdiction-

(A) The plaintiff resides
(B) The Stamp Paper for entering into the contract was purchased
(C) Where no cause of action in
part or full arose
(D) Where die cause of action
wholly or in part arose
Indian Contract Act


11. An Agreement in restraint of
marriage of any person other
than a minor is a-

(A) Legal Contract
(B) Voidable Contract
(C) Fraudulent Contract
(D) Void Contract


12. ’A’ and ’B” contract to marry
each other, before the time fixed
for the marriage, ’A’ goes mad,
the contract becomes-

(A) Voidable Contract
(B) Conditional Contract
(C) Contingent Contract
(D) Void Contract


13. ’A’ proposes by a letter to sell his
house to ‘B’ for certain price,
communication of this proposal is
complete when-

(A) ’A’ dispatches the letter
(B) ’A’ has completed writing
the letter
(C) ’B’ gets information about
posting of the letter
GD) ’B’ receives the letter


14. Where the order in which reciprocal promises are to be per-
formed is expressly fixed by the
contract, they shall be performed
in that order; and where the
order is not expressly fixed it
shall be performed-

(A) ln that order which the
nature of transaction requires
(B) ln the order as one of the
parties prefer
(C) As desired by the proposal
(D) None of the above


15. ’A’ promises to obtain for ’B’ an
employment in public service
and ’B’ promises to pay Rs. 1,000
to ’A’, the agreement between
’A” and ’B’-

(A) ls Legal and proper
(B) Can be enforced at the
instance of ’B’
(C) Is Void agreement
(D) None of the above


16. A person employed to do any
act for another or to represent
another in dealings with the
third person is-

(A) Aprincipal
(B) Apawnor
(C) An agent
(D) Abailor


17. Insurance is a-

(A) Contingent contract
(B) Wagering contract
(C) Contract of indemnity
(D) Contract of guarantee
Indian Evidence Act, 1872


18. Copies made from or compared
with the original is-

(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) inadmissible evidence
(D) None of these


l9. Whether confession made to a
Police Officer (while not in custody) by an accused of an offence
can be proved against him and is
a ,…….. Evidence–

(A) Admissible
(B) Not admissible
(C) Partially admissible
(D) None of these


20. The following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay—

(A) Dying declaration
(B) Res gesture
(C) Medical Expert’s Opinion
(D) Confession


21. ’A” is charged with travelling on
a railway without a ticket, the
proving that he had a ticket is

(A) Prosecution
(B) Accused
(C) Complainant
(D) Prosecution witness
The Madhya Pradesh Land
Revenue Code


22. Amongst the following who is
not a Revenue Officer as defined
under the Madhya Pradesh Land
Revenue Code ?
(A) Commissioner
(B) Collector
(C) Settlement Officer
(D) Chairman, Board of Revenue


23, Revision powers are exercised by
the Board of Revenue under .,….
of the Madhya Pradesh Land
Revenue Code.

(A) Section 40 (B) Section 44
(C) Section 46 (D) Section 50


24. A Bhumiswami can seek partition of his agricultural land
amongst his legal heirs during
his life time by applying to the-

(A) Patwari
(B) Village Kotwar
(C) Tahsildar
(D) Superintendent of Land


25. Which amongst the following is
not the duty of a Patel appointed
under the Madhya Pradesh Land
Revenue Code ?

(A) To collect and pay Land
Revenue into the Gram Kosh
(B) To furnish reports regarding
state of his village
(C) To prevent encroachment on
waste land, public path and
(D) To maintain land records


26. Who is competent to transfer a
revenue case from one District to
another under Section 29 of the
M. P. Land Revenue Code ?

(A) State Government
(B) Board of Revenue
(C) Chief Secretary
(D) Revenue Minister


27. lf a Bhumiswami is dispossessed
of the land otherwise then in clue
course of law who can be ordered
for restoration of the possession ?

(A) Tahsildar
(B) Commissioner .
(C) Collector
(D) S,D.O. ‘


28. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is
maintained by the-

(A) Patwari
(B) Kotwar
(C) Sub-Divisional Officer
(D) Tahsildar


29. Which one of the following
matter is not provided for in a
Nistar Patrak; terms and conditions on which——

(A) Grazing of cattle in the
village is permissible
(B) The right to fishing may be
obtained by a resident
(C) Wood, Timber or Fuel may
be obtained by a resident
(D) Mooram, Kankar or Sand
may be obtained by a resident


30. …… is not defined in the Code ?

(A) Orchard
(B) Arrears
(C) Cooperative Society
(D) Alluvion


Specific Relief Act, 1963 `

31. The relief provided India it l
Specific Relief Act, is- ’

(A) Discretionary
(B) Mandatory
(C) Statutory
(D) Obligatory


32. In a suit for specific performance
of contract the plaintiff can seek
a relief only if he establishes

(A) Prima facie case is in his
(B) He was willing and ready to
perform his part of the contract
(C) Balance of Convenience is in
his favour
(D) He may suffer irreparable


33. Find out the correct statement.
Specific Relief can be granted-

(A) For enforcing individual
A civil rights and not for enforcing
a penal law
(B) For enforcing penal law and
not for enforcing civil rights
(C) Only for enforcing penal
(D) For enforcing civil rights
and a penal law


34. No suit for recovery of possession may be instituted under
Section 6 of Specific Relief Act-

(A) Against Government
(B) Against a Public Company
(C) Against a Private Company
(D) Against all of these


35. Find out the incorrect statement
in respect of temporary injunctions-

(A) Preventive relief granted at
the discretion of the Court
(B) Such as are to continue until
a specified time or until the
further order of the Court
(C) Regulated by the Code of
Civil Procedure
(D) Cannot be granted at any
stage of a suit


36. ln which of the following cases
would the specific performance
of any contract not be enforced
by the Court?

(A) Where the property is not
an ordinary article of commerce
(B) Where the property consists
of goods which are not easily
obtainable in the market
(C) Where compensation in
money can be afforded for non-
performance of the contract as an
adequate relief
(D) Where there exists no
standard for ascertaining the
actual damage caused by non—
performance of the contract


37. Which of the following contracts
cannot be specifically enforced as
per the provision of Section 14 of
the Act ?

(A) Execution of a formal deed
of partnership
(B) Contract for the construction of any building or execution
of any other work on land
(C) Contract which is determinable in its nature
(D) Contract to execute a mortgage or furnish any other
security for repayment of any
loan which the borrower is not
willing to repay at once
Transfer of Property Act


38. An instrument as defined under
Section 3 of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882 means-

(A) A Negotiable Instrument
(B) A Transferable Instrument
(C) A non-testamentary Instrument
(D) A will


39. Where on a Transfer of Property,
an interest therein is created in
favour of a person to take effect
only on the happening of a
specified uncertain event, the
Transfer is called-

(A) Conditional Transfer
(B) Transfer by interest
(C) Absolute Transfer
(D) Contingent Transfer


40. The Transfer of Property Act,
1882 covers-

(A) Movable Property
(B) Immovable Property
(C) None
(D) (A) and (B)both


41. Under the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882 a person is said to have
notice of a fact when-

(A) He actually knows the fact
(B) May have knowledge about
the fact
(C) Could with reasonable cause
know the fact
(D) Is not at all aware of the fact


42. A mortgage by deposit of title
deed is called-

(A) Anomalous mortgage
(B) English mortgage
(C) Equitable mortgage
(D) Usufructuary mortgage


43. Which of the following is not an
actionable claim ?

(A) Right to a Provident Fund
(B) Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the
promisee succeed in L.L.B.
(C) Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if
the promisee marries a particular
(D) Right to claim benefit of a
contract coupled with a liability


44. …….. is defined as a security for
repayment of a loan.

(A) Pledge
(B) Mortgage
(C) Lease
(D) None of these


Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam

45. The normal term of office of a
member nominated to a Gram
Nyayalaya constituted under the
Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya Adhjniyam, 1996 is~

(A) Two years
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Six years


46. The State Government establishes Gram Nyayalaya for every

(A) District (B) Tahsil
(C) Block (D) Circle


47. Every person nominated as a
member of the Gram Nyayalaya
before assuming office shall
submit a declaration to the effect

(A) He shall continue to be a
member of political party
(B) He shall not pay subscription to any political party
(C) He shall not hold any office
of profit
(D) He shall cease to be a member of political party from the
date he assumes office


48. A Gram Nyayalaya constituted
tmder the M.P. Gram Nyayalaya
Adhiniyam, 1996 is not
empowered to inquire or to try
an offence under Section—

(A) 326 l.P.C. (B) 323 I.P.C.
(C) 336 I.P.C. (D) 426 l.P.C.


49. A Gram Nyayalaya shall not
have exclusive jurisdiction under
Section 16(ii) of M.P, Gram
Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 to
inquire and try offences under—

(A) Cattle Trespass Act
(B) M. P. Iuvenile Smoking Act
(C) Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act
(D) Secton 13 of the Public
Gambling Act


50. A Gram Nyayalaya should make
endeavor to-

(A) Compromise a dispute
(B) Should not compromise
(C) Should make endeavor to
punish the wrong doer
(D) None of the above


6 comments to Solved objective type questions bank on Law

  • N.shalini.patapat

    This information is very usefull for the request is please givr more information about genral knowledge. like solved objective type question and answer papers that is very use full.thak you so much

  • M.K.Metri

    Dear Sir/Madam Question No.
    40. The Transfer of Property Act,
    1882 covers-

    (A) Movable Property
    (B) Immovable Property
    (C) None
    (D) (A) and (B)both

    Answer is given as :D but its wrong. right answer is :B

  • sonia

    nice and very useful mcqs

  • Mamta Agrawal

    These questions are very useful so thank you so much.

  • G.Ganesh

    Mr. Metri….Q.No.40….. when speaking broadly, answer ought to be “applicable only to immovable property” but considering the spirit of said act, given answer is correct…. exam. oriented question… answer must be ‘BOTH” ie applicable to both moveble as well as immovable property.

  • deepshikha singh

    very nice or important question for preparation of various exam

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